Earning Salvation?

Preface: The Jews have 613 laws written in the Tanakh. These laws were often viewed as rules to be followed so that the Jews could be viewed as righteous before God, namely, so that they could be saved from death and corruption. Paul, a man who was well versed in the Tanakh, was writing about what was required to be saved from death and corruption. He pretty much turns preconceived ideas upside down. What follows is my revamped  translation of Romans 4.1-10:

What then shall we say stands discovered about flesh by Abraham our forefather?

If Abraham had been made righteous through works, then his boasting would not be about God. What is it that the scriptures say? They say that “Abraham believed God and his faith was counted as his righteousness.”

Now, to the one whom works, his wages are not counted as a gift, but his wage is counted as a debt.

But to the one whom does not work – yet believes in the one who justifies the ungodly – his faith is counted as righteousness. It is a gift, because he did not work for it. Indeed, even as David said:

Blessed is the man whom God counts righteous without works;

Blessed are those whose lawless deeds are forgiven and whose sins are covered;

Blessed is the man whose sin the Lord will not take into account.

Well now, is this blessing to the circumcised or to the uncircumcised as well? Early we affirmed; the faith was counted as righteousness for Abraham. How then was it considered? Was it counted after he was circumcised or while he was still uncircumcised?

It was not while circumcised; rather his righteousness was given to him by grace while he was uncircumcised!!!

I had never put thought into verse 1 before where it speaks about “flesh.” It must be in reference to the flesh of man before and/or after circumcision. Paul is trying to establish a case for what we can learn about righteousness. It seems as though most interpretations view this passage as saying “the flesh” is in reference to Abraham being our father according to the flesh – but no! Context and syntax show that Paul is talking about circumcision and whether or not this Act of the Law helped bring forth righteousness.

Obviously, we can see that works of the Law did not make Abraham righteous. In fact, it could not have been considered part of his righteousness because Abraham was accounted as being righteous before he was even circumcised. This is what stands discovered about the flesh: Abraham’s righteousness was given to him by grace while he was uncircumcised in the flesh and because he was counted righteous simply by having faith, so are we!!!

In an ironic twist, do our actions demonstrate this belief that works do not impart righteousness?

Advertisement